3. Flay [A]Giving Up; Renouncing [B]Dark; Vague; Unclear [C]Pertaining To Tailors [D]Strip Off Skin; Plunder
4. Foray [A]Preoccupation With Physical Comforts And Things [B]Pale Purple [C]Open Up [D]Raid
5. Franchise [A]Tease; Torture With Disappointment [B]Come About By Addition [C]Divide Into Branches Or Subdivisions [D]Right Granted By Authority
6. Galvanize [A]Father, Produce; Give Raise To [B]Whim [C]Stimulate By Shock; Stir Up [D]Sorrowful
7. Generic [A]Uneasiness; Distress [B]Characteristic Of A Class Or Species [C]Schemes [D]Unable To Be Restrained Or Held Back
8. Glutton [A]Weaken; Destroy [B]Act Of Finding Oneself In Society [C]Suitable To Debate Or Courts Of Law [D]Someone Who Eats Too Much
9. Gratuity [A]Oppose With Arguments; Contradict [B]Calamity [C]Recognize, Admit [D]Tip
10. Hale [A]Good-Natured; Merry [B]Healthy [C]Exclude From Public Favor; Ban [D]Exempt
11. Heretic [A]Glance Coquettishly At; Make Eyes At [B]Snub; Beat Back [C]High, Flat-Topped Hill [D]Person Who Maintains Opinions Contrary To The Doctrines Of The Church
12. Holocaust [A]Curry Favor; Act In An Obsequious Way [B]Skillful [C]Destruction By Fire [D]Objects That Are Showy, Valueless, Deceptive
13. Icon [A]Comparable [B]Theme [C]Religious Image; Idol [D]Cure-All; Remedy For All Diseases
14. Impassive [A]Raid [B]Without Feeling; Not Affected By Pain [C]Quench; Sate [D]Prohibit; Restrain
15. Implore [A]Boisterous Merrymaking [B]Pompous Array Of Words [C]Beg [D]Muscular Strength; Sturdiness
1. Subordinates are vital in an organization for implementation of the ideas set forth by top management. The willingness of subordinates to take on additional responsibilities, is a factor that affects the degree of [A]Centralization [B]Decentralization [C]Decision-making [D]Controlling
2. An important issue in organizing is the extent to which authority is centralized, or its opposite, decentralization, in a formal organization structure. Centralization is at one end of a continuum and at the other end is decentralization. Centralization refers to [A]The number of employees a manager can supervise [B]The degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized [C]The degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization [D]The unity of command within an organization
3. Which of the following refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed? [A]Responsibility [B]Authority [C]Span of control [D]Unity of command
4. Divisional structure is a type of departmentation in which positions are grouped according to similarity of products, services or markets. Which of the following is not an advantage of Divisional Structure? [A]Each unit or division can respond or react quickly, when required, because they normally do not need to coordinate with other divisions before taking an action [B]Coordination is simplified as each division is similar to an organization, containing the various functions within it [C]Individuals are able to develop in-depth areas of specialization to the same extent as in a functional structure [D]It helps the organization to focus on serving a particular customer
5. There are three major forms of divisional structure: product division, geographic division and customer division. Geographic Divisions are divisions designed to serve different geographic areas. Which of the following statements is false regarding Geographic Division or Departmentation? [A]It allows a manager to pay special attention to the needs and problems of the local markets [B]It provides facilities to local customers [C]It helps managers get extensive knowledge of specialized activities [D]Product function can be organized on the basis of territory by establishing plants in a particular region
6. Strategic Business Unit (SBU) is a more recent form of organization structure adopted by several companies. Which of the following is not correct regarding Strategic Business Unit (SBU)? [A]All SBUs of an organization have the same mission [B]An SBU has well defined competitor groups [C]An SBU efficiently manages its resources in prime areas [D]An SBU should have a proper size, that is neither too small nor too large
7. Departmentation can be done through four major structural alternatives: Functional structure, Divisional structure, Hybrid structure, Matrix structure. Of these, Functional departmentalization groups jobs by [A]Tasks they perform [B]Territory they serve [C]Type of customer they serve [D]Products they manufacture
8. Which of the following factors determine(s) an effective span of control? I. Clarity and Delegation of Authority. II. Use of Objective Standards. III. Rate of Change. [A]Only (I) above [B]Both (I) and (III) above [C]Both (II) and (III) above [D](I), (II) and (III) above
9. Purchasing agents are responsible for timely and reliable flow of raw materials and public relations staff is responsible for developing and maintaining a favorable public image of the organization. All these jobs, also known as interface functions form part of the [A]Boundary spanning sub system [B]Technical subsystem [C]Operational subsystem [D]Managerial subsystem
10. If in an organization, individuals have adequate authority and also responsibility in achievement of organizational goals, the situation is called [A]Downward delegation [B]Authority on par with responsibility [C]Well-defined hierarchy of authority [D]Unity of direction
11. Anil, the manager of Internet Made Easy, is concerned. He is trying, like all technological based companies, to stay ahead of the competition by being the first to offer the new services available on the Internet. His business offers training to local businesses, and so he must offer the latest available information; however, he must also advertise the classes and the content, which means going to the publisher with that information six weeks before a class is to begin. He also has to think what he should offer in his next series of classes. Anil is operating under which of the following conditions? [A]Uncertainty [B]Certainty [C]Risk [D]Optimal decision-making
12. When predictability is lower, a condition of risk exists. Which of the following is a characteristic of decision-making under risk? [A]The decision-maker has complete information about available alternatives, and has a good idea of the probability of particular outcomes for each alternative [B]The decision-maker has complete information about available alternatives, but has no idea of the probability of particular outcomes for each alternative [C]The decision-maker has incomplete information about available alternatives, but has a good idea of the probability of particular outcomes for each alternative [D]Future environment is unpredictable and everything is in a state of flux
13. The strap of Rahul's backpack tears off as he starts to throw it over his shoulder. On the way to school, he stops at the first store that carries backpacks, walks in, and purchases one off the front rack. Rahul has just made what type of a decision? [A]Irrational decision [B]Satisficing decision [C]Risky decision [D]Optimal decision
14. Once the best available alternative has been selected, it must be effectively implemented to achieve the objective for which it was selected. It is very much possible for a good decision to become ineffective due to poor implementation. Which of the following is important in effectively implementing the chosen alternative in the decision-making process? [A]Double-checking your analysis for potential errors [B]Ignoring criticism concerning your chosen alternative [C]Getting upper-management support [D]Allowing those impacted by the outcome to participate in the process
15. Managers who use a rational, intelligent and systematic approach are more likely than others to come up with high quality solutions to the problems they face. There are two major types of decision-making models. viz., the Rational Model and the Non-rational Models. Which of the following is false regarding Rational Model of decision-making? [A]Managers are completely involved in rational decision-making processes [B]Managers possess and understand all information that is relevant to their decisions at the time they make them [C]Managers always make decisions, which are in the best social interests of their firms [D]This view was in vogue during the first half of the nineteenth century
1. Approximately what portion of the world’s population reside in India? [A]One-third [B]One-fourth [C]One-fifth [D]One-sixth
2. Decibel is the unit of [A]frequency [B]wavelength [C]sound [D]luminous intensity
3. Which of the following US state is also known as the ‘Empire State’? [A]Chicago [B]San Francisco [C]New York [D]Washington DC
4. He is also known as the ‘Light of Asia’. Can you identify him from the given options? [A]Guru Nanak Dev [B]Mahavir Swami [C]Swami Vivekananda [D]Gautam Buddha
5. Which of the following trains is India’s first certified ISO-9001 train? [A]Tamilnadu Express [B]Magadh Express [C]Bhopal Express [D]AP Express
6. Which of the following represents the name of the Chinese character on whom the emblem of Beijing Olympics is based? [A]Yan [B]Ying [C]Jing [D]Jang
7. Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is based at [A]Varanasi [B]Chennai [C]Hyderabad [D]Kanpur
8. Who wrote the book The Algebra of Infinite Justice? [A]Vikram Seth [B]Rohington Mistry [C]Anurag Mathur [D]Arundhati Roy
9. Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), is based at [A]Kolkata [B]Bangalore [C]Hyderababd [D]Chennai
10. Global Trust Bank is founded by… [A]Deepak Parekh [B]K. V. Kamath [C]Ramesh Gelli [D]P. V. Narasimhan
11. ‘Manas Tiger Sanctuary’, is in [A]Uttar Pradesh [B]Assam [C]West Bengal [D]Rajasthan
12. Panini was [A]a Greek philosopher [B]an Indian astronomer and famous mathematician [C]a sanskrit grammarian of vedic times [D]great poet of ancient times
13. Mein Kemf is authored by [A]Napoleon Bonaparte [B]Karl Marx [C]Adolf Hitler [D]Benito Mussolini
14. Which of the following is the largest and the deepest ocean of the world? [A]Arctic [B]Atlantic [C]Pacific [D]Indian
15. The literacy rate of India is [A]0.5786 [B]0.6134 [C]0.6398 [D]0.6538
8. Ecologist [A]Not Easily Satisfied; Greedy [B]A Person Concerned With The Interrelationship Between Living Organisms And Their Environment [C]Friendship [D]Become Worse; Deteriorate
9. Elated [A]Person Wearing Tattered Clothes [B]Overjoyed; In High Spirits [C]The Meat Of A Deer [D]Choosing At Random; Confused
10. Enamored [A]Give [B]Brilliant; Lustrous [C]In Love [D]Oval; Ambiguous, Either Purposely Or Because Key Words Have Been Left Out
11. Ensue [A]Pretend [B]Premonition Of Evil [C]Follow [D]Strongly Held Belief
12. Epoch [A]Shrink Quivering, As From Fear [B]Period Of Time [C]Connection [D]Doubter; Person Who Suspends Judgment Until He Has Examined The Evidence Supporting A Point Of View
13. Euphonious [A]Worldly; Not Pertaining To Church Matter [B]Pleasing In Sound [C]Marry Feast Or Picnic [D]Longing; Urge
1. Managers need to know the different motivation theories in order to motivate individual employees perform to the best of their ability in any type of organization. Which of the following motivation theories states that people develop beliefs about the fairness of the rewards they receive relative to their contributions? [A]Two-factor theory [B]ERG theory [C]Needs theory [D]Equity theory
2. Creative thoughts are the result of hard work and there are various techniques to foster creativity. Which of the following is one of the best-known techniques for facilitating creativity, developed by Alex F. Osborn? [A]Brainstorming [B]Synectics [C]Delphi Technique [D]Nominal Group Technique
3. Behavioral problems can arise in an organization due to a number of factors. One has to know the underlying cause behind behavioral problems. Which of the following will not be a cause for behavioral problems? [A]Lack of team-spirit [B]Lack of positive attitude [C]Blind adherence to rules [D]Personality problem
4. An intervention, in Organization Development (OD) terms, is a systematic attempt to correct an organizational deficiency uncovered through diagnosis. Which of the following intervention techniques is concerned with the interpersonal relations and dynamics operating in work groups? [A]Technostructural Activity [B]Team Building [C]Skill Development [D]Process Consultation
5. Every organization makes minor structural adjustments in reaction to changes. Change is any alteration of the "status quo". The forces of change can be internal or external to the organization. An example of an internal force for change is [A]Marketplace [B]Government regulation [C]Technology [D]Workforce
6. Most of the conflict-resolution approaches either focus on interpersonal relationships or structural changes. There are different conflict-resolution approaches. The conflict-resolution approach that corresponds with a high level of assertiveness and a low level of cooperativeness, is referred to as [A]Compromising [B]Collaborating [C]Forcing [D]Avoiding
7. Performance appraisal involves the formal evaluation of an individual’s job performance. Which of the following is not a useful suggestion for providing effective feedback in an appraisal review? [A]Make the feedback goal-oriented [B]Ensure understanding [C]Keep the feedback impersonal [D]Direct negative feedback toward behaviour that is uncontrollable
8. Which of the following contain sets of specific behaviours that represent gradations of performance and are used as common reference points for rating employees on various job dimensions? [A]Behaviourally anchored rating scales [B]Graphic rating scales [C]Behaviour rating scales [D]Behaviour scales
9. A person who had applied for the post of a service representative, is asked to handle a simulated situation involving a complaining customer, by the company. Which of the following selection devices is being made use of? [A]Application Blank [B]Intelligence Test [C]Personality Test [D]Work Sampling Test
10. Which of the following is a computerized database containing basic information about each employee that can be used to assess the likely availability of individuals for meeting current and future human resource needs? [A]Manpower Inventory [B]Replacement Planning [C]Succession Planning [D]Skills Inventory
11. Two widely used systematic job analysis approaches are the Functional Job Analysis and the Position Analysis Questionnaire. Of the two, Functional Job Analysis focuses on which of the following dimensions of an individual job? I. What does the worker do with respect to data, people and jobs? II. Which machines, tools and equipment does the worker use? III. Which products or services does the worker produce? [A]Only (I) above [B]Both (I) and (III) above [C]Both (II) and (III) above [D](I), (II) and (III) above
12. The selection process involves choosing the candidates who best meet the qualifications and have the greatest aptitude for the job. There are various steps in the selection process. Which of the following steps usually precedes the others in the selection process? [A]Selection Test [B]Comprehensive Interview [C]Application Blank [D]Reference Check
13. In modern times, organizations have been trying to create a corporate culture with a distinct identity by moulding the behaviour of their members. The original source of an organisation’s culture is most strongly associated with [A]Overseas influences [B]Political factors in the external environment [C]General economic trends [D]The vision of the organisation’s founder(s)
14. Each of the following is a characteristic of organizational culture except [A]Member identity [B]Distinctiveness [C]Observed behavioral regularities [D]Uniform strength
15. Power is a much broader concept than authority, and it is the ability of individuals or groups to induce or influence the beliefs or actions of other persons and groups. There can be different types of powers. According to which of the following powers, people or groups may exercise influence, because others believe in them and their ideas? [A]Position [B]Legitimate [C]Expert [D]Referent
1. World Trade Organization came into existence in [A]1992 [B]1993 [C]1994 [D]1995
2. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT one of the main organs of the Government? [A]Legislature [B]Bureaucracy [C]Executive [D]Judiciary
3. Which of the following is a Central Government Tax? [A]Income tax [B]Corporation tax [C]Sales tax [D]Octroi
4. English education in India was introduced by [A]Lord Dalhousie [B]Lord Curzon [C]Lord Macaulay [D]Lord Rippon
5. Governor is apointed by the [A]Prime Minister [B]President [C]Chief Justice [D]Chief Justice of the concerned state’s high court
6. My Passage from India, is a book authored by [A]E. M. Foster [B]Ismail Merchant [C]Nirad C Choudhary [D]Mulk Raj Anand
7. When did the Second Round Table conference take place? [A]1915 [B]1922 [C]1928 [D]1931
8. Metals which chemically behave both as metals and non-metals are called [A]alloys [B]metalloids [C]halogens [D]chalkogens
9. The fear of heights is termed as [A]acrophobia [B]phosophophobia [C]claustrophobia [D]hydrophobia
10. Jalianwala Bagh massacre took place during the governorship of [A]Lord Dalhousie [B]Lord Ripon [C]Lord Minto [D]Lord Chelmsford
11. Which of the following articles of the Constitution deals with Financial Emergency? [A]Article 352 [B]Article 356 [C]Article 360 [D]Article 370
12. Scurvy is a disease caused by the deficiency of [A]Vitamin B [B]Vitamin C [C]Vitamin K [D]Vitamin A
13. The largest river (in terms of volume of water it carries) is [A]Nile [B]Mississippi Missouri [C]Amazon [D]Yangtze
14. ‘Hasan’ is situated in [A]Madhya Pradesh [B]Karnataka [C]Orissa [D]Tamil Nadu
15. ‘Manchester of South India’, is [A]Madurai [B]Coimbatore [C]Bangalore [D]Thiruvananthapuram
7. Cleft [A]Shed Or Cast Off Hair Of Feathers [B]Study Of Artifacts And Relics Of Early Mankind [C]Split [D]Resentment; Anger; Sense Of Injury Or Insult
8. Cognomen [A]Lying On Back [B]Irritation; Resentment [C]Family Name [D]Enclose; Place In Something
9. Constituent [A]Procession; Parade [B]Supporter [C]Parti-Colored; Mixed [D]Government By A Few
10. Controvert [A]Living As The Same Time As; Contemporary [B]Violation Of A Thrust [C]Oppose With Arguments; Contradict [D]Rearing Up On Hind Legs; Unrestrained
1. When you are offering suggestions to improve the existing system of performance appraisal, you have observed the following expressions on your boss’s face. The upper lip is raised, while lower lip is lowered, the nose is wrinkled, the lower eyelids are pushed up, and the eyebrow is lowered. What your boss is trying to convey? [A]Sadness [B]Fear [C]Disgust [D]Happiness
2. Visual aids help communicate the subject matter clearly. Imagine reading a paragraph of text describing your company’s share of sales and your competitor’s share of sales in the region, it would be unreadable and incomprehensible. If the same information were tabulated the information would not only be crystal clear, it would also be easy for the reader to make the necessary comparisons of differences in market share. To show correlations, all of these graphs/charts can be used except I. Bar. II. Line. III. Pie. [A]Only (I) above [B]Only (III) above [C]Both (I) and (II) above [D]Both (II) and (III) above
3. Which of the following statements is not true? [A]Smiling while talking on the telephone has no impact on how one may sound [B]Body language, facial expressions, and vocal characteristics are easier to control than words [C]Eye contact is so important in face to face communication that averting one's gaze can lead an audience to find negative meaning even in a message with positive wording [D]In business communication, physical gestures can reinforce words
4. People often put an invisible boundary between themselves and others. Which of the following isthe distance one wants between oneself and other people in ordinary, non-intimate interchanges? [A]Personal boundaries [B]Spatial arrangement [C]Personal space [D]Feature space
5. Various attention-getting techniques have been successful in convincing recipients to put aside whatever they are doing and considering an unsolicited letter. I want to start my message with attention-getter like “Are you interested in improving your health?” Comment on my choice. [A]It is a good attention-getter many people will be attracted since, everybody is interested in improving their health [B]It is a good attention-getter message because you are talking about other people’s health [C]It is a bad attention-getter because answer to this question is always “yes”. Hence, there is no need to ask this question [D]It is a bad attention-getter because people do not want others to intrude in their personal space
6. Listening is the most frequent, perhaps the most important type of on-the-job communication.Listening on the job is not only frequent it is very important as well. In fact, most managers agree that “active listening” is the most crucial skill for becoming a successful manager. If we ask a fundamental question, why do people listen at all? The answers to this question are many and varied. If one is engaged in critical listening, the goal is to [A]Understand and retain information [B]Understand the speaker's feelings, needs, and wants [C]Evaluate the logic and validity of the message [D]Appreciate the speaker's point of view
7. “To be well prepared, you must know exactlyhow much you are willing to concede or compromiseon each factor. You must also have ready all the arguments you may need to justify your point of view.” Which of the following elements of negotiation does this come under? [A]Conduct [B]Understand the people involved [C]Know your objectives [D]Know the rules and regulations
8. An interview is a goal-oriented, interpersonal communication between an interviewer and arespondent. In which of the following interviews does the interviewer control the interview by asking a series of questions in a set order? [A]Pre-employment testing [B]Handwriting analysis [C]A structured interview [D]An open-ended interview
9. Which of the following key topics should be covered in an effective meeting agenda? I. Welcome/Introduction II. Apologies for absence III. Minutes of the last meeting IV. Date of next meeting [A]Only (I) above [B]Both (I) and (III) above [C](I), (III) and (IV) above [D]All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above
10. The success of a meeting depends on the ability of each individual member of a group tocommunicate with the rest of the group as a whole. When conducting a meeting [A]If some people are too quiet, leave them alone; they probably have nothing to contribute [B]If some people dominate the conversation, let them do so, since they are probably the most knowledgeable attendees [C]Try to simply act as an observer, and let the meeting "run itself" [D]None of the above
11. To communicate your purpose effectively, you need to understand the audience. Which of thefollowing questions is least likely to help you analyze your audience? [A]What channel is most cost efficient? [B]How will the reader use the document? [C]What will the reader’s initial reaction be to the message? [D]How much information does your reader need?
12. Recent studies that focus on the workplace show that, on an average, personnel at all levels spendabout 32.7% of their time listening, while speaking takes up 25.8% of their time and writing 22.6%. Top executives spend even more time listening than other employees. Mr. Kumar is the in-charge for preparing advertisements for Hanuman Ltd. That day he was giving a presentation in front of a top management team, the advertisements he has prepared for a product to be launched. Murty one of the members of the management team requests for more details. Here Murty is involved in which of the following stages of listening process? [A]Retention [B]Action [C]Involvement [D]Evaluation
13. While writing a business message, proper care should be exercised. We should not humiliate anybody, we should not offend anybody, otherwise we have to face legal complications. Which of the following sentences would be least likely to offend a member of a minority group? [A]Mona will represent the Christian members [B]For a Baptist she is broad-minded [C]He was an honest Italian [D]We hired a hard-working black man
14. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to persuasive messages? [A]Persuasive messages aim to influence audiences who are inclined to resist or ignore the message [B]The persuasive techniques acceptable in one culture may not be acceptable in another culture [C]While writing persuasive messages, we must maintain the highest standard of business ethics and follow both the letter and the spirit of law [D]Only emotional appeals are needed for persuasive messages
15. Conflicts are inevitable. Even the most amicable people get upset at times. Disagreements arisebecause individuals see, hear, and interpret things differently. Which of the following is not a self-oriented role? [A]Diverting [B]Attention seeking [C]Controlling [D]Harmonizing
1. K.C. Neyogy was the [A]first chair person of finance commission of India [B]first governor of RBI [C]first finance minister of Independent India [D]None of these
2. ‘Sugar Bowl of India’, is [A]Madhya Pradesh [B]Uttar Pradesh [C]Kerala [D]Karnataka
3. Approximately 90 percent of the earth’s crust is made up of [A]metamorphic rocks [B]sedimentary rocks [C]igneous rocks [D]None of these
4. Who among the following is credited with the invention of polio vaccine? [A]Louis Pasteur [B]Albert Sabin [C]Jonas Salk [D]Alexander Flemming
5. Pick the odd one out. [A]Juan Antonio Samaranch [B]Perez de Cuellar [C]Boutros-Boutros Ghali [D]Kofi Annan
6. Which of the following countries is also known as ‘Dairy of Northern Europe’? [A]Switzerland [B]Finland [C]Denmark [D]Belgium
7. Currency of Denmark is [A]Rand [B]Krone [C]Pound [D]Peseta
8. Who was the person behind the ‘Kuka movement’? [A]Kunwar Singh [B]V B Phadke [C]Guru Ram Singh [D]Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
9. In the 552 — strong Lok Sabha, how many members are there from the Union Territories? [A]10 [B]20 [C]30 [D]40
10. Which of the following personalities gave ‘The Laws of Heredity’? [A]Robert Hook [B]G. J. Mendel [C]Charles Darwin [D]William Harvey
11. Name the personality who was also known as Deshbandhu. [A]S. Radhakrishanan [B]G. K. Gokhale [C]Chittaranjan Das [D]Madan Mohan Malviya
12. Which of the following is NOT the language enshrined in the eighth schedule of the Indian Constitution, as the language of the state? [A]Nepali [B]Kashmiri [C]English [D]Konkani
13. The capital of Uttaranchal is [A]Masoorie [B]Dehra Dun [C]Nainital [D]None of these
14. The Dewang Mehta award is given in the field of [A]Medicine [B]Sports [C]IT [D]None of these
15. Which of the following represents the Finance Commissions that have been set-up so far? [A]10 [B]11 [C]12 [D]13
1. Visual aids will definitely help to present the information more attractively. Choosing the proper visual aids is very important. The multi-range bar chart is also called I. Multiple range bar chart II. Comparative bar chart III. Cluster bar chart [A]Only (I) above [B]Only (III) above [C]Both (I) and (II) above [D]All (I), (II) and (III) above
2. Imagine you are an HR manager in a medium sized firm, which recently put out an advertisementfor sales representatives. The company needs three people. You get nearly 500 application letters. After all, it is the appearance that makes the first impression. Which of the following is the efficient format in letter writing? [A]Modified block [B]Block [C]Hanging block form [D]Simplified block
3. You are graduating from a business school in another month and entering the job market. Youreducation has equipped you with a set of resources -qualifications and skills. Now you have to prepare a resume to sell yourself. Which of the following statements is nottrue regarding the resume? [A]In a chronological resume, the "Work Experience" section dominates and is placed in the most prominent slot [B]The chronological approach emphasizes a list of skills and accomplishments [C]One of the advantages to a functional resume is that employers can see what you can do for them [D]The chronological approach is the most common way to organize a resume
4. You are writing a business message to a customer regarding the benefits of a to-be introduced and a bit costlier product. You have to include evidences supporting the claims you have made regarding the utility of the product. The evidence should be [A]As abstract as possible [B]Minimal if your subject is complex or unfamiliar [C]Enough to be convincing but not so much that it's boring [D]As lengthy as possible
5. Recently you have received an order from one of your old clients. His previous record suggests that he delays payments, hence, you do not want to supply goods to him. Which of the following phrases should not be used in the close of the letter refusing your old client’s order? I. “Enclosed the list of latest products”. II. “I trust our decision is satisfactory”. III. “If you have further questions, please write”. IV. “We hope you will continue to do business with us”. [A]Only (I) above [B]Only (I) and (II) above [C]Only (I) and (III) above [D](II), (III) and (IV) above
6. Understanding the audience is often a more challenging task. It requires the cultivation of a “you”or “reader oriented” attitude. Understanding audience and making the message acceptable to them is very important in making the communication successful. The first step in adapting your message to the reader is [A]Researching the situation about which the reader wants to know [B]Forming a mental picture of what the reader is like [C]Outlining the logical developments of the message [D]Deciding on the company goal to be served
7. Recently, you have received a letter from one of yourcustomers stating that they have developed a problem in the product you have supplied and they have spent some amount for repairs. Their claim is that product is still in guarantee period hence, you should reimburse the amount spent on repairs. But your investigation revealed that the problem is due to the mishandling of the product by the customer. The best way to respond to the customer is [A]Refuse the claim without any explanation [B]Refuse the claim and point out the customer's mistake [C]Honor the claim but do so resentfully [D]Honor the claim but tactfully point out that your firm was not at fault
8. Channels are the means used to convey the message. To physically transmit your message youselect a communication channel and a medium. The medium could be telephone, computer, fax, letter, memo, face-to-face, etc. Companies that use intranets [A]Are engaging in e-commerce with their customers [B]Facilitate communication among employees within a company [C]Are behind the times technologically [D]Facilitate communication between employees and the society
9. Writers use punctuation marks to help readers extract meaning from a sentence, in much the sameway that readers use pauses and voice inflection. In which of these cases is a “comma” not used? [A]Between coordinate clause joined by but, for [B]Between hours and minutes to express them in figures [C]After dependent clauses [D]Between words in a series
10. Communication among the members of a group leads to group decisions. If these decisions are to beeffective, a group’s members must be able to communicate freely and openly with all the other members of the group. If communication fails that may lead to conflict. When dealing with dysfunctional group members, the team leader should [A]Lay down rules in an opening statement [B]Stare at them until they are quiet [C]Eject them from the meeting [D]Place the unruly members at the end of the table or across from the leader
11. Effective communication is not just about talking and listening. In an organization it is largely aboutbuilding team-oriented relationships marked by co-operation, honesty and mutual respect. In today’s business world the success of an organization to a great extent depends on which of the following skills of the workforce to establish a positive work environment? [A]Risk-taking abilities [B]Interpersonal skills [C]Gregariousness [D]Cleverness
12. When we hear, we only perceive sounds, but when we listen, this hearing is accompanied by adeliberate and purposeful act of the mind. To listen means to get meaning from what is heard. One may hear the words another person utters, without really understanding them. Emotionally charged words or messages can interfere with listening because [A]They put the speaker in a bad light [B]They may insult the listener [C]They cause the listener to focus on the emotion [D]They cause the listener to focus on the message
13. People listen for various purposes. Sometimes they listen because they enjoy what they arelistening. Depending on the purpose, a listener adopts various approaches. In one of the listening approaches, it entails supportive behavior that tells the speaker, “I understand. Please go on.” This approach is called [A]Content listening [B]Critical listening [C]Empathic or active listening [D]Sustained listening
14. We all know that a sentence can broadly be divided into two parts. In a sentence, the __________makes an assertion about or describes an action involving the subject [A]Noun [B]Predicate [C]Object [D]Verb
15. Nonverbal communication signals can completely alter the message that you communicate. Inresponse to an idea Murty states during a meeting, Mohan makes a "thumbs up" gesture. Mohan's action functions to [A]Control and regulate the communication taking place [B]Contradict Murty's expressed idea [C]Substitute for saying "I like your idea" [D]Indicate that the idea is offensive
1. Which is the closest statement defining project start-up? [A]When the project manager gets the team together to celebrate the start of the project [B]When the CEO gives the project manager clearance to start the project [C]It is characterized by great uncertainty and considerable time pressures [D]It is the initial phase of the project life cycle
2. Planning for the project is done in order to: [A]Decide the work that needs to be done [B]Plan the scope of the project [C]Plan the time, scope and cost of the project [D]Understand what we need to do and plan how to do the work
3. The Project Management Plan is one of the most important documents in the project as it is: [A]Used to execute the project [B]Used to monitor and control the project [C]Uses the outputs of other planning processes [D]All of the above
4. In the Project Management Plan, the -------------- and -------------- are management’s statement of the project’s success criteria: [A]Why, what [B]Why and How [C]How, How much [D]Why, when
5. The Project Management Plan should be approved by the: [A]CEO [B]Client [C]Sponsor [D]Both Sponsor and the Project manager
6. A plan is necessary to: [A]Organize the work [B]Define the scope of work [C]Mobilize resources [D]All of the above
7. It is desirable to define and discus the project's success criteria during which phase of the project life cycle? [A]Before the conceptualization phase of the project [B]During the conceptualization phase of the project [C]In the implementation phase of the project [D]Throughout the project
8. The success criteria: [A]Is the same for all the stakeholders [B]Defines the qualitative and quantitative measures to judge the project’s success [C]Is decided by the project manager [D]Is always measured in terms of cost
9. Success stories of projects of all sizes showed that ____________ was/were kept bare minimum [A]Scope changes [B]Scope baselines [C]Confusion due to scope change [D]All of the above
10. Should the scope baseline be kept as sacrosanct as possible throughout the project life cycle? [A]Not necessary, we should be more adaptable [B]Not necessary, as changes will take place for sure [C]Yes, that is the challenge [D]Not necessary as we should be open to new ideas
11. With time becoming a critical resource, too much time and resources spent in defining the scope _______ [A]Is a wasteful expenditure [B]Will allow competitors to be ahead of us [C]Will make us late in delivering services [D]Will give us better control on the overall project
12. More clarity by defining scope in detail will increase the probability of project success [A]No [B]Yes [C]Depends on the type of projects [D]Depends on the type of customers
13. Projects are undertaken to create: [A]Products and Services [B]Employment and job satisfaction [C]High performing teams [D]Continuity of operations and services
14. How much clarity should the description of the product or service being created by the project? [A]High level [B]Low level [C]Medium level [D]Reasonable
15. Which would not be used in scope planning? [A]WBS templates [B]Scope management plan templates [C]Critical path method [D]Information and expertise gathered from relevant experts
1. Which of the following constitute functions of Master Production Schedule? I. Forecast the aggregate demand. II. Translate aggregate plans. III. Identify material requirements. IV. Generate capacity requirements. [A](I), (II) and (III) above [B](I), (II) and (IV) above [C](I), (III) and (IV) above [D](II), (III) and (IV) above
2. Which of the following is not correct regarding Make-or-Buy Analysis? [A]Purchase managers, with the assistance of production engineers, generally do a Make-or-buy analysis for materials [B]It is made based on the break-even analysis [C]Lead time is not to be considered for making the decision [D]Break-even demand is the demand at which the total cost of making a product is equal to the total cost of buying the product
3. In an assembly line of two workstations, the sum of task time is 30 seconds. If the cycle time is 20 seconds, the efficiency of balance is [A]66.67% [B]70 % [C]75 % [D]80 %
4. Which of the following is false in relation to Demand Chain? [A]Instead of building and operating their supply chain from manufacturer to market, Demand Chain leaders are creating alliances with those channel partners who are able to fulfill consumers’ needs and wants [B]The players in today’s emerging Demand Chains are different from those in traditional supply chains [C]Responsibilities are assumed by the Demand Chain as a whole [D]In a Demand Chain, products don’t necessarily originate from manufacturers
5. Which of the following is not an advantage of job specialization? [A]Improvement in work environment for the workers [B]Simpler work instructions and easy productions control because of consistence in work assignment [C]Scope for higher degree of mechanization or automation [D]Ease of supervision and training of workers
6. The Average Cycle time in an assembly line is 2.5 minutes and the performance rating of worker is 95 percent, then Normal time is given by [A]2.175 min [B]2.245 min [C]2.375 min [D]2.450 min
7. Which of the following does not constitute uses of Predetermined Motion Time Studies (PMTS)? [A]Developing Standards [B]Control and Auditing [C]Benchmarking [D]Motivating employees
8. Which of the following is not a feature of Just-in-Time (JIT) purchasing system? [A]Reduction in production cycle time [B]Improved quality [C]More responsiveness to customer needs [D]Increased capital requirements
9. Which of the following are the main reports used in inventory and production control? [A]Planned Orders [B]Primary reports [C]Secondary reports [D]Performance reports
10. Hybrid layout is commonly used to manufacture which of the following products? [A]Aircraft [B]Car [C]Television [D]Paper
11. Fixed-sequence robots are most useful for which of the following production systems? [A]Product focused [B]Process focused [C]Job-shop [D]Intermittent system
12. Lakhan Company Limited wants to forecast the demand of its lawnmowers for the month of July. Actual and forecasted demand for last five months is as follows: Month Feb Mar Apr May Jun (in units) Forecast 110 120 145 155 180 Actual 80 106 133 162 170 The Mean Absolute Percentage Error (MAPE) of the above data is [A]12.98 % [B]13.98 % [C]14.98 % [D]15.98 %
13. Which of the following is not true with respect to Project Crashing? [A]The process of reducing the time of the project by reducing some of the activity times is called crashing [B]Subcontracting, using the services of overtime labour and adding an extra shift are some of the general approaches for crashing the project time [C]As the Project Crashing approaches are expensive, managers need to make an analysis of time-cost tradeoffs that reduce the project duration with a minimum increase in cost [D]We select the critical activity that has the minimum completion time
14. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Product Life Cycle? [A]The first stage in the life cycle of a product is Introduction stage [B]In the Introduction stage, sales begin as a result of intense promotion and other marketing efforts, and profits are either less or negative [C]In the growth stage, there is a high growth rate in the sales volume and organizations emphasize on production capacity expansion [D]The activities in the Operations Department that are related to the product development and design are more intense in the later stages of the Product Life Cycle
15. Which of the following is not true about Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)? [A]It is the fundamental rethinking and radical redesign of business processes to achieve dramatic improvement in critical, contemporary measures of performance such as cost, quality, service and speed [B]It revolves around Information Technology (IT) and continuous change [C]It involves constant refinement of an organization’s changing needs [D]BPR came to replace the outdated and overly simplistic views implied by downsizing
1. The World Tourism Day is celebrated on [A]16-Aug [B]16-Sep [C]27-Sep [D]7-Oct
2. India’s first steel plant was set-up at [A]Rourkela [B]Bhilai [C]Durgapur [D]Jamshedpur
3. The application of mathematics to the study of living beings is known as [A]bionomics [B]biotechnology [C]bionics [D]biometry
4. LIBOR stands for [A]Long Island Borrowing Offer Rate [B]London Inter Bank Offer Rate [C]Luxemburg International Banks Organisation Regime [D]None of the above
5. ‘Deenabandhu’, was the title given to [A]C. R. Dass [B]A.O. Hume [C]B.G. Tilak [D]C.F. Andrews
6. When was the rupee devalued for the first time after independence? [A]1948 [B]1949 [C]1952 [D]1954
7. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) is based at [A]Jabalpur [B]Pune [C]Lucknow [D]Hyderabad
8. The nature of Indian Economy can best be described as [A]socialist [B]mixed [C]capitalist [D]None of these
9. ‘Cue’ is a term used in [A]billiards [B]football [C]hockey [D]chess
10. Word ‘secular’, was inserted into the Constitution of India with the help of [A]38th Constitutional amendment [B]36th Constitutional amendment [C]44th Constitutional amendment [D]42nd Constitutional amendment
11. A person bends forward while climbing to [A]reduce atmospheric pressure [B]decrease friction [C]increase stability [D]avoid slip-ups
12. Tripitakas, are the sacred text of [A]Jainism [B]Buddhism [C]Hinduism [D]Sikhism
13. Animal that can live both on land and water, are known as [A]mammals [B]reptiles [C]amphibians [D]None of these
14. Sanjukta Panigrahi was a famous dancer of [A]Bharat Natyam [B]Kathak [C]Odissi [D]Mohiniattam
15. India’s percentage area under agriculture is [A]0.47 [B]0.56 [C]0.63 [D]0.74
1. Which of the following is not true regarding JIT Purchasing? [A]There is usually a single source of supply for a given part in nearby geographical area with a long-term contract [B]Purchasing is carried out in small lots, with frequent deliveries [C]Suppliers can be innovative in design specifications [D]A certain percentage of rejects from a supplier is acceptable
2. Maximum managers spend most of their time working on the unimportant many problems than working on the important few problems. The remedy to this universal problem can be solved most effectively using [A]Value analysis [B]Job analysis [C]ABC analysis [D]Make-or-Buy analysis
3. The stores manager wants to report to the senior management that in the past four months, the supply of inventory materials had been very irregular. Which of the following types of output report related to Materials Requirement Planning should be submitted by the stores manager to have the management’s attention for ensuring a regular supply of materials in right quantities? [A]Change Report [B]Control Report [C]Planning Report [D]Authorized Order Release
4. Which of the following priority scheduling rules is based on the assumption that the jobs that consume more processing time are more valuable for the organization? [A]Earliest due date [B]Shortest processing time [C]Longest processing time [D]First in, first serve
5. Which of the following quality functions is measured as the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)? [A]Reliability [B]Serviceability [C]Perceived quality [D]Aesthetics
6. Which of the following gives rise to a truly virtual corporation that allows contact with any customer or supplier at any time? [A]SCM [B]ESCM [C]CAD [D]CAM
7. A renowned automobile manufacturing company wants to automate its production process in order to bring efficiency in the process. With regard to this, it has sought the help of an external consultant. However, the consultant has warned that the company should clearly understand the advantages and disadvantages of automation before going for it. Which of the following is not an advantage that would be offered by automation? [A]Improvement in productivity [B]Efficient use of materials [C]Reduced factory lead-time [D]Greater flexibility
8. The planning division of a manufacturing organization wants to formulate its aggregate output plan for the coming six months on the basis of historical planning data available with it. For this purpose, which of the following models should it use? [A]Linear Programming [B]Linear Decision Rules [C]Heuristic Model [D]Computer Search Model
9. Out of the following materials handling equipment, used by a cement manufacturing company, which one can be classified as a fixed path equipment? [A]Trucks [B]Forklifts [C]Mobile cranes [D]Conveyors
10. A popular tractor manufacturing company uses an MRP (Materials Requirement Planning) system to manage its complex production process, that involves many components and sub-assemblies. An MRP system is used because of the many advantages offered by it. However, it might not be advantageous in some respects. Which of the following is not an advantage of an MRP system? [A]Reduced per unit cost of production [B]Low inventory levels, especially for in-process materials [C]Lesser time required in implementing the system [D]Optimized production scheduling
11. The quality inspection team of the client company has been told by the Quality Control Manager to be more vigilant in checking whether the products manufactured by the contractee firm were as per the agreed specifications. This aspect refers to which of the following quality dimensions? [A]Performance [B]Conformance [C]Reliability [D]Serviceability
12. If selling price of a product ‘x’ is Rs.45. Variable cost per unit is Rs.40. If fixed cost is Rs.1,00,000. What will the profit, if sales are Rs.11,25,000 [A]Rs.25,000 [B]Rs.30,000 [C]Rs.40,000 [D]Rs.45,000
13. In a big hospital like Seba, the lower-level managers have been arguing for some time that a large amount of nurses’ were spending time in non-nursing activities. This has resulted in increased hospital costs, because nurses’ wages are the highest single cost in the operation of the hospital. Which of the following Work Measurement Techniques will be the most appropriate and economical to use by the top management to verify the above argument? [A]Time Study [B]Predetermined Motion Times [C]Work Sampling [D]Standard Data
14. Which of the following is not true in case of Point Rating technique? [A]It is based on the ranking of various weighted factors that influence the choice of location [B]Locations are ranked by the appropriate weightages given to each factor [C]Evaluation should be only quantitative and not qualitative [D]Implementation of this type of system requires careful judgment
15. A firm achieved sales of 1000 units in the month of June when the forecast was for 900 units. The estimated sales for the month of July for a smoothing constant of 0.1, is [A]850 units [B]870 units [C]890 units [D]910 units
1. Listening is one of the most essential ingredients of effective communication. No message can be properly understood without intent listening. Which of the following is not an effective listening technique? [A]Avoiding premature evaluation [B]Avoiding eye contact [C]Exhibiting affirmative nods and appropriate facial gestures [D]Finding an area of interest in what the other person is saying
2. Andrew Carnegie said, "As I grow older, I pay less attention to what men say. I just watch what they do." He was suggesting the importance of [A]Face-to-face verbal communication [B]Non-verbal communication [C]Cross-cultural communication [D]Upward communication
3. Communication is a process of exchanging ideas or information between two persons. During the communication process, when the message is converted to a symbolic form, it is known as [A]Encoding [B]Expanding [C]Contracting [D]Decoding
4. Interpretation of messages plays a very important role in communication within or outside organizations. The interpretation of a message by an individual is known as [A]Message interference [B]Perception [C]Noise [D]Semantics
5. The communication process is made up of various components. A look at the various components of the communication process helps one appreciate the challenge of effective communication in organizations. Which of the following is the actual physical product from the source, i.e., the sender? [A]Feedback [B]Filter [C]Message [D]Channel
6. The managerial grid identified five specific leadership styles. The _____ leader believes that thoughtful attention to the needs of people for a satisfying relationship leads to a comfortable, friendly organizational atmosphere and work tempo. [A]Task [B]Middle of the road [C]Country club [D]Team
7. According to Kurt Lewin, a leader who allows his employees complete freedom to make decisions and to complete work in whatever way they think is best, is using which leadership style? [A]Democratic-participative [B]Laissez-faire [C]Autocratic [D]Democratic-consultative
8. Which theory of leadership states that the leader's job is to clarify the objectives they wish their employees to reach and to remove roadblocks that employees find as they work toward their objectives? [A]Fiedler’s Model [B]Path-goal Theory [C]Hersey and Blanchard's Model [D]The Ohio State Studies
9. German Sociologist, Max Weber, introduced the concept of ‘charisma’ into discussions of leadership. Which of the following is not generally regarded as a characteristic of charismatic leadership? [A]Behaviour that is out of the ordinary [B]Vision and the ability to articulate the vision [C]Environment sensitivity [D]Excess attention to detail
10. One important issue involving leadership is the argument that managers and leaders are not necessarily one and the same. As per the argument, a major difference between management and leadership is that leadership includes [A]Bringing together resources to achieve organizational goals [B]Designing organizational structures [C]Bringing about order and consistency [D]The ability to inspire people
11. When managers have substantial but not complete confidence and trust in subordinates and solicit advice from subordinates while retaining the right to make final decision, Likert’s four systems of management describes it as [A]Participative leadership style [B]Benevolent-authoritative leadership style [C]Consultative leadership style [D]Exploitative-authoritative leadership style
12. Jyotsna strives to develop friendships, prefers to work in cooperative situations, and works toward a high degree of mutual understanding in her relationships. Which need is she demonstrating? [A]Achievement [B]Power [C]Recognition [D]Affiliation
13. Building on the work of Abraham Maslow, psychologist Frederick Herzberg interviewed two hundred accountants and engineers in the vicinity of Pittsburgh in U.S.A. He propounded the famous two-factor theory of motivation, which was based on the question [A]What do people want from their jobs? [B]What is satisfaction in a job? [C]Will a person receive justice in awarding pay? [D]Who is the right boss?
14. According to Herzberg, the various job content factors that make individuals satisfied with their jobs are known as motivators. Which of the following can be classified as a motivator as per his two-factor theory of motivation? [A]Supervision [B]Job Security [C]Working Conditions [D]Recognition of work
15. To overcome the criticisms of Maslow's Need Hierarchy theory, motivation researcher Clayton Alderfer proposed an alternative theory known as ERG theory. Which of the following is not true about Alderfer's ERG theory? [A]Alderfer proposed a condensed version of Maslow's Need Hierarchy theory with only three groups of core needs, viz., existence, relatedness and growth [B]The existence needs are related to Maslow’s physiological and safety needs [C]The relatedness needs are the desire to establish and maintain interpersonal relationships [D]ERG theory assumes a rigid hierarchy where a lower level need must be substantially gratified before one can move on
1. World Consumer Rights Day is observed on [A]4-Mar [B]15-Mar [C]30-Mar [D]7-Apr
2. This Indian state is the most literate, biggest producer of natural rubber and is promoted by the tag line God’s Own Country. Identify the state in question from the given options. [A]Andhra Pradesh [B]Kerala [C]Karnataka [D]Tamil Nadu
3. The capital of Portugal is [A]Algiers [B]Lisbon [C]Brussels [D]Madrid
4. Where are the headquarters of the world’s foremost Human Right’s Organization, Amnesty International? [A]Berlin [B]New York [C]London [D]Geneva
5. Huen Tsang visited India during the reign of [A]Kanishka [B]Harsha [C]Ashok [D]Chandragupta
6. Which of the following is not an official language of the United Nations? [A]Chinese [B]French [C]German [D]Arabic
7. In which of the following years was the name of G7 changed to G8? [A]1994 [B]1996 [C]1998 [D]1999
8. Which of the following countries is not a member of G-15 group? [A]Kenya [B]Chile [C]Nigeria [D]Pakistan
9. ‘White Revolution’ is related with [A]flood control [B]fish production [C]wheat production [D]milk production
10. Ozone layer is depleted the most by [A]carbon dioxide [B]carbon monoxide [C]chloroflourocarbons [D]sulphur dioxide
11. Which of the following days is celebrated as the World Food Day throughout the world? [A]14-Apr [B]16-Oct [C]20-June [D]11-Dec
12. Brass is an alloy that is made up of [A]zinc and sulphur [B]sulphur and copper [C]copper and zinc [D]zinc and magnesium
13. What is the limit of thermosphere, a division of atmosphere? [A]220 km [B]430 km [C]690 km [D]810 km
14. Golden Revolution is associated with the increased production of [A]fertilisers [B]eggs [C]fruits [D]milk
15. The youngest mountaineer to have scaled Mount Everest is [A]Temba Tsheri [B]Ang Rita [C]Nawang Gombu [D]Fu Dorjee
