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Monday, April 30, 2012

General Knowledge Quiz - 155

1. Who was the first man to land on moon?
[A]Neil Armstrong
[D]John Collins

2. One inch is equal to how many centimeters?

3. Bronze is an alloy of copper and

4. Minus 40 degree centigrade is equal to _____ degree Fahrenheit.
[D]None of these

5. What is the value of XC (Roman Number)?

6. The person of which of the following blood groups can accept the blood of any group?

7. Mountain K2 is known as
[B]Nanga Parbat

8. Lucknow is situated on the banks of river

9. Where is the headquarters of South-East Central Railway located?

10. Which of the following places in India receives maximum precipitation?

11. Who built the Tower of Victory in Chittor ?
[A]Rana Sanga
[B]Rana Rattan Singh
[C]Rana Kumbha
[D]Rana Partap

12. Who was the winner of 2011 Man Booker Prize?
[A]Damon Galgut
[B]Emma Donoghue
[C]Peter Carey
[D]Julian Barnes

13. Sahara Group bought _______ % stake worth $100 million, in the Vijay Mallya owned Force India F1 team, which has been re-christened as Sahara Force India.
[A]42.5 percent
[B]50 percent
[C]41.2 percent
[D]43.9 percent

14. Who has been honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for "exceptional leadership" and his contribution to strengthening bilateral ties between India and Switzerland?
[A]Lakshmi Mittal
[B]Ratan Tata
[C]Anil Ambani
[D]Mukesh Ambani

15. In which of the following BRIC countries, Renault-Nissan announced a combined investment of $1.8 billion where the companies plan to introduce 23 new models?


Project Management Quiz - 72

1. The bottom-up estimates generally have an accuracy of:
[A]-25% to +75%
[B]-25% to +30%
[C]-5% to +10%
[D]+15% to -15%

2. What are the three most common cost estimating techniques?
[A]Top-down, parametric and bottom-up
[B]Analogous, top down and bottom-up
[C]Parametric, bottom-up and detailed
[D]Monte Carlo, bottom-up and parametric

3. Cost baseline can:
[A]Change during the project life cycle
[B]Be affected by scope change
[C]Be affected by change in time schedule
[D]All of the above

4. Cost baseline is:
[A]Another name for cost estimates
[B]Given by upper management
[C]Time phased budget of project that is used to measure project's cost performance
[D]Provided in the contract to the customers

5. Zero defects, Continuous quality improvement and TQM:
[A]Advocate a proactive way to improve quality
[B]Rely on the workers to implement better quality
[C]Means that there are zero defects
[D]All of the above

6. A company wants to introduce a defect free environment. The authority and capability to introduce this:
[A]Lies with the project manager
[B]Lies with the management
[C]Lies with the functional manager
[D]Lies equally with - the project manager, the functional manager and management

7. A critical path is shown in a:
[B]Bar chart
[C]Project network diagram
[D]Resource histogram

8. The critical path in a project network is the path that:
[A]Is the longest path in a network
[B]Is decided by a project manager
[C]Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time
[D]Should be executed when other activities on a non critical paths have been finished

9. Which of the following impacts the critical path?
[A]Executing a forward pass
[B]Reduce the free float of an activity
[C]Executing a backward pass
[D]Changing the task duration of a critical path activity

10. The series of interconnected activities, which determine the duration of the project is known as:
[A]The critical path
[B]The free float plan
[C]The critical work plan
[D]The management plan

11. Project X has a total budget of $9 million and was to be completed in 8 months. While reviewing the progress of the project at the end of 3 months, the following data was presented: BCWS or PV = $3 Million; BCWP or EV = $2.5 Million and ACWP or AC = $3 Million. What is Estimate at Completion if the efficiency of capital deployed will change to 100% from now onwards:
[A]$9 Million
[B]$8.5 Million
[C]$9.5 Million
[D]$10.8 Million

12. Project X has a total budget of $9 million and was to be completed in 8 months. While reviewing the progress of the project at the end of 3 months, the following data was presented: BCWS or PV = $3 Million; BCWP or EV = $2.5 Million and ACWP or AC = $3 Million. What is Estimate at Completion if the efficiency of capital deployed remains the same?
[A]$3.6 Million
[B]$10.8 Million
[C]$7.5 Million
[D]$12 Million

13. Continuous Improvement Process or CIP is a quality concept that states:
[A]What is satisfactory today may become unsatisfactory tomorrow
[B]Does not advocate any great leap forward
[C]Management should keep looking for ways to improve and change processes
[D]All of the above

14. Zero defects states that:
[A]There are zero errors in a process
[B]There is no tolerance for any defects within the system
[C]See how to improve processes in order to avoid all defects
[D]B and C

15. The modern trend in quality is to:
[A]Focus more on customer satisfaction and conformance to requirements
[B]Give the customer more than what he wants
[C]Give the customer less than what he wants
[D]Rely on worker to maintain quality


Economics Quiz - 21

1. A firm will shut down its operations in the short run if
[A]It incur losses
[B]Fixed costs exceed its revenue
[C]Variable costs exceed its revenue
[D]Total revenue falls short of total cost

2. If the demand curve for product B shifts to the right as the price of product A declines, it can be concluded that
[A]A and B are substitute goods
[B]A and B are complementary goods
[C]A and B are not related goods
[D]A is a superior and B an inferior good

3. The demand function for a product is P = 20 – 2Q. If the current market price is Rs.10, what is the price elasticity of demand?

4. Average productivity of labor for a firm is 25 when labor employed is 50 units. When labor employed is increased to 52 units, average productivity of labor declines to 24 units. At current input level the marginal productivity of labor is
[A]-1 unit
[B]-2 units
[C]1 unit
[D]2 units

5. Which of the following is false in first-degree price discrimination?
[A]The monopolist will be able to extract the entire consumer’s surplus
[B]The price of each unit will be different
[C]By following first degree price discrimination, the profit of the monopolist will be more than what he could otherwise earn at a single price
[D]The price of the first unit will be less than that of the subsequent units

6. Which of the following is not an example of an intermediate good?
[A]Cycle tyres bought by Hero Cycles Ltd.
[B]Fertilizer bought by a vegetable cultivator
[C]Art paper purchased by a painter
[D]A pack of sweets bought by Mr. Rajesh to celebrate his success with friends

7. In the recent monetary policy, the RBI Governor reduced the CRR from 4.75% to 4.50%. Which of the following sequences correctly shows the impact of the reduction in CRR?
I. Change in money supply.
II. Change in nominal interest rates.
III. Change in consumption and investment.
IV. Change in aggregate demand.
V. Change in real GDP and price level.
[A](I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) above
[B](I), (II), (III), (V) and (IV) above
[C](I), (II), (IV), (V) and (III) above
[D](I), (V), (II), (III) and (IV) above

8. Three countries – A, B and C have same Production Possibility Frontier (PPF), but have different investment behavior. Country A made a gross investment equal to its depreciation. Country B spent most of its income on consumption. Country C invested heavily by sacrificing its current consumption. After 10 years which country will have a higher PPF?
[A]Country A
[B]Country B
[C]Country C
[D]Both (b) and (c) above

9. Immediately following a depression,
[A]Unemployment rate increases moderately
[B]Aggregate demand decreases further because of recession
[C]There will be rapid increase in wages but less than the increase in prices of goods and services
[D]The cost of production will gradually increase because of gradual increase in wages

10. An economy is said to be facing inflation with respect to a base year if the price index for the current year is
[A]Greater than 0 (i.e. positive)
[B]Greater than 100
[D]Between 0 to 100

11. In which of the following markets, the demand curve faced by a firm will be least elastic?
[A]Perfectly competitive market
[B]Monopolistic market
[D]Pure oligopoly

12. Total market value of all the final goods and services produced in a given period by factors of production located within a country is
[A]Gross National Product at market prices
[B]Gross Domestic Product at market prices
[C]Net National Product at market prices
[D]Gross National Product at factor cost

13. “The money payments which are not due to any current productive activity on the part of income receiver” is called
[A]Plan expenditure
[B]Transfer payments
[C]Consumption expenditure
[D]Past expenditure

14. The difference between M3 and M1 is
[A]Demand deposits
[B]Post office savings deposits
[C]Savings deposits
[D]Time deposits

15. The diagram of circular flow of income shows
I. Households providing firms with factors of production.
II. Income for factors of production flowing from households to firms.
III. Firms owning factors of production.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (III) above
[C]Both (I) and (III) above
[D]Both (II) and (III) above


Sunday, April 29, 2012

Learn English Vocabulary Online (Vocabulary Quiz - 142)

1. Circuitous
[A]Haughty And Contemptuous
[C]Deputize; Pass To Others
[D]Furnisher Of Foodstuffs; Caterer

2. Cloister
[A]Lacking In Spirit Or Energy
[B]Conquer; Bring Under Control
[C]Soothing Or Softening Remedy
[D]Monastery Or Convent

3. Connivance
[A]Slight Offense
[B]Pretense Of Ignorance Of Something Wrong; Assistance; Permission To Offend
[C]Divine Gift; Great Popular Charm Or Appeal Of A Political Leader

4. Contemporary
[A]Greedy; Eager For
[B]Withdrawal; Retreat
[C]Person Belonging To The Same Period
[D]Imposing; Impressive

5. Coquette
[B]Brother Or Sister
[D]Breaking Of Contract Or Duty; Fissure; Gap

6. Crabbed
[A]Conspicuously Wicked
[B]Good-Natured Ridiculing
[C]Pertaining To The Pharisees, Who Paid Scrupulous Attention To The Tradition; Self-Righteous; Hypocritical
[D]Sour; Peevish

7. Cumbersome
[B]Heavy; Hard To Manage
[C]Someone Who Eats Too Much
[D]Region Near Heaven Or Hell Where Certain Souls Are Kept; A Prison [Slang]

8. Debilitate
[A]Swirling Current Of Water, Air, Etc.
[B]Bleach; Whiten
[C]Suitable; To The Point
[D]Weaken; Enfeeble

9. Defeatist
[B]Fern Leaf; Palm Or Banana Leaf
[C]Attitude Of One Who Is Ready To Accept Defeat As A Natural Outcome
[D]Uncertain How To Act; Weak

10. Demented
[A]Cliff; Dangerous Position
[B]Deceit; Duplicity
[C]Having No Name

11. Deranged
[A]Group Of Closely Located Islands
[B]Token Of Disgrace; Brand
[C]Odd; Whimsical; Irregular

12. Devotee
[A]Agent Which Brings About A Chemical Change While It Remains Unaffected And Unchanged
[B]Enthusiastic Follower
[C]Small Group Of Persons Secretly United To Promote Their Own Interests
[D]Raving Mad

13. Diminution
[A]Work Against
[B]Lessening; Reduction In Size
[C]Mass Of Floating Ice

14. Disfigure
[A]Short Discount Of An Amusing Or Interesting Event
[B]Mar In Beauty; Spoil
[C]Tender Sorrow; Pity; Quality In Art Or Literature That Produces These Feelings
[D]The State Of Having Contradictory Or Conflicting Emotional Attitudes

15. Dissent
[A]Large Sailing Ship
[B]Climb By Crawling
[D]Speed Of Music


IT Quiz - 17

1. Which of the following blocks contains the information about the entire disk in an UNIX file system?
[A]Boot Block
[B]Super Block
[C]I-node Block
[D]Data Block

2. In OSI reference model, which of the following layers provides network transparency to the end users?
[A]Network layer
[B]Physical layer
[C]Presentation layer
[D]Application layer

3. Which of the following commands in Novell Netware Operating System deletes trustee rights from a directory?

4. The mechanism used to break the output into two parts in UNIX is known as

5. Which of the following is/are true about digital transmission technology?
I. It provides higher transmission speeds.
II. It transmits multiple types of communications simultaneously on the same circuit.
III. It transfers larger amounts of information.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Both (II) and (III) above
[D]All (I), (II) and (III) above

6. In telecommunication networks, which of the following is/are true about telecommunication media?
I. Twisted pair cables are twisted together to reduce the noise.
II. The insulation in the coaxial cable minimizes the interference from other signals.
III. The disadvantage of fiber optic cable is slicing of the cable to make the connections.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Both (II) and (III) above
[D]All (I), (II) and (III) above

7. Which of the following collaborative work management tools helps in generating Gantt charts?
[A]Task an d project management
[B]Workflow system
[C]Calendaring and scheduling tools
[D]Knowledge management

8. Which of the following protocols in TCP/IP Reference Model is a reliable connection oriented protocol that allows a byte stream originating on one system to be delivered without error to any other system in the network?
[A]Transmisson Control Protocol
[B]User Datagram Protocol
[C]File Transfer Protocol
[D]HyperText Transfer Protocol

9. In C language, array index starts with

10. How many categories of functions are present in C language?

11. In C program, the arguments used in the calling function are called
[A]Active arguments
[B]Passive arguments
[C]Actual arguments
[D]Formal arguments

12. Mr. Ramesh, the production manager in a reputed pharmaceutical company, asked his subordinate Mr. Suresh to provide him details of the first quarter sales in comparison with the overall sales for the year end ed March 31, 2005. Which of the following charts is helpful to him in this case?
[A]Line Chart
[B]Bar Chart
[C]Column Chart
[D]Pie Chart

13. Which of the following commands in Novell Netware Operating System recover the deleted files that have not be en purged?

14. The main goal of database modeling is to eliminate redundant data by breaking each table into smaller tables. This process is referred to as

15. Which of the following is/are the applications of Wide Area Network (WAN)?
I. Transaction acquisition.
II. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI).
III. LAN-to-LAN connections.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]All (I), (II) and (III) above


Saturday, April 28, 2012

General Knowledge Quiz - 154

1. Who is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire?
[A]Chandragupta II
[B]Chandragupta I

2. Shahjahan ascended the Mughal throne in
[A]1628 AD
[B]1626 AD
[C]1625 AD
[D]1627 AD

3. Which is correct order?
[A]Babur, Humayun, Jahangir, Akbar, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
[B]Babur, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan, Aurangzeb
[C]Babur, Akbar, Humayun, Shahjahan, Jahangir, Aurangzeb
[D]Babur, Humayun, Shahjahan, Akbar, Jahangir, Aurangzeb

4. Ibn Batutah visited India during the rule of
[A]Alauddin Khilji
[B]Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
[C]Sher Shah Suri

5. Who was the Nawab of Bengal during ‘Battle of Plassey’?
[B]Mir Jafar
[C]Mir Qasim
[D]None of these

6. FIFA World Cup, 2010 was played in
[D]South Africa

7. Munaf Patel plays which sport?

8. The first Asian lady swimmer to have crossed the English Channel was
[A]Bula Choudhury
[B]Arati Saha
[C]Nilima Ghosh
[D]None of these

9. Which country has never won the Cricket World Cup?

10. Which cricket playing countries fight for the ‘ASHES’?
[A]Indian and Pakistan
[B]Australia and South Africa
[C]Australia and England
[D]England and West Indies

11. Who was the first Law Minister of independent India?
[A]Jawaharlal Nehru
[B]Vallabhbhai Patel
[C]Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
[D]Dr. B.R.Ambedkar

12. Who was the first speaker of the Lok-Sabha?
[C]N.Sanjeeva Reddy
[D]Dr. S.P.Mukherjee

13. How many states (except Delhi) are there in India?

14. Which country won the first World Cup Cricket?
[D]West Indies

15. Who was the woman President of the United Nations?
[A]Sarojini Naidu
[B]Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
[C]Golda Mayer
[D]Margaret Thatcher


Vocabulary Quiz - 141

1. Analgesic
[A]Act As Judge
[B]Causing Insensitivity To Pain
[C]Please Intensely
[D]Fickle; Incalculable

2. Anthropoid
[A]Color; Aspect
[B]Joining; Associating With
[D]Causing Sadness, Compassion, Pity; Touching

3. Apothegm
[A]Bend The Knee As In Worship
[C]Pithy, Compact Saying
[D]Like An Emperor; Related To An Empire

4. Archipelago
[B]Group Of Closely Located Islands
[C]Hidden Sarcasm Or Satire; Use Of Words That Convey A Meaning Opposite To The Literal Meaning
[D]Brighten; Clear Up Or Make Understandable

5. August
[A]Increase; Grow
[C]Occurring Or Taking Place Within The Subject; Unreal
[D]Impressive; Majestic

6. Awry
[B]Incipient; Coming Into Being
[C]Freedom From Narrow Limitations
[D]Distorted; Crooked

7. Bask
[A]Lying; False
[B]Situated Beyond; Unstated
[C]Weaken; Mitigate
[D]Luxuriate; Take Pleasure In Warmth

8. Bellicose
[A]Exalted; Noble; Uplifting
[D]Brawl; Melee

9. Bilious
[B]Suffering From Ingestion; Irritable
[C]Broadly Sympathetic; Liberal
[D]Testify; Bear Witness

10. Boisterous
[A]Notoriously Bad
[B]Violent; Rough; Noisy
[C]Boastful; Pompous
[D]Firm Grasp Or Footing

11. Bugaboo
[A]Burn Without Flame; Be Liable To Break Out In Any Moment
[B]At The Point Of Death
[C]Wrestle; Come To Grips With
[D]Bugbear; Object Of Baseless Terror

12. Camaraderie
[A]Person Belonging To The Same Period
[C]Charming; Attractive
[D]Very Fat

13. Carrion
[A]Swamp Gas; Odor Of Decaying Matter
[B]Rotting Flesh Of A Dead Body
[C]Ban On Commerce Or Other Activity
[D]Worldly As Opposed To Spiritual

14. Cavil
[B]Advise Against
[C]Make Frivolous Objections
[D]Withered; Shriveled

15. Chaotic
[A]Interpret Incorrectly; Misjudge
[B]Secondary Or Minor Occupation
[C]Go Backwards; Degenerate, Instead Of Advancing
[D]In Utter Disorder


Software Testing Quiz - 3

1. The testing which is done by going through the code is known as,
[A]Unit Testing
[B]Blackbox testing
[C]White box Testing
[D]Regression testing

2. This type of testing method attempts to find incorrect or missing functions, errors in data structures or external database access, interface errors, Performance errors and initialization and Termination errors. It is called as
[A]White Box Testing
[B]Grey Box Testing
[C]Black Box Testing
[D]Open Box Testing

3. Phase Definition. It will come under
[A]CMM Level 1
[B]CMM Level 2
[D]Six Sigma

4. Software testing which is done without planning and Documentation is known as
[A]adHoc Testing
[B]Unit Testing
[C]Regression testing
[D]Functional testing.

5. Acceptance testing is known as
[A]Beta Testing
[B]Greybox testing
[C]Test Automation
[D]White box testing

6. Retesting the entire application after a change has been made called as?
[A]Full Regression Testing
[B]Unit Regression
[C]Regional Regression

7. Boundary value analysis belongs to which testing method?
[A]Black Box testing
[B]White Box testing
[C]Stress Testing
[D]None of the above

8. It measures the quality of a product. It is a specific part of the QA procedure, It is a corrective process, It applies for particular product & Deals with the product.
[C]Quality Assurance
[D]Quality Control

9. What are the Types of Integration Testing?
[A]Big Bang Testing
[B]Bottom Up Testing
[C]Top Down Testing
[D]All the above

10. A metric used to measure the characteristic of documentation and code called as
[A]Process metric
[B]Product Metric
[C]Test metrics
[D]None of the above

11. Which is non-functional software testing?
[A]Unit Testing
[B]Block box testing
[C]Performance Testing
[D]Regression testing

12. The process that deals with the technical and management issues of software development called as?
[A]Delivery Process
[B]Testing Process
[C]Software Process
[D]None of the above

13. Executing the same test case on a modified build called as
[A]Regression Testing
[C]Ad hoc Testing
[D]Sanity Testing

14. Which is Black-Box Testing method?
[A]Equivalence partitioning
[B]Code coverage
[C]Fault injection
[D]None of the above

15. Informing to the developer which bug to be fix first is called as
[C]Fix ability


Friday, April 27, 2012

Business (Corporate) Quiz - 8

1. Eureka Forbes is part of which group of companies?
[A]Tata Group
[C]Shapoorji Pallonji Group
[D]Kanoria Group

2. Which is the most expensive domain name to be auctioned on the net till date?

3. Which company bought Macromedia for $ 4 Billion?

4. Corporated Incorporated' and 'Limited Unlimited' were names considered but not adopted. What was finally adopted?

5. Which online matrimony site was founded by J. Murugavel, who himself found his wife through the Internet?

6. The term "Big Blue" is associated to which company?

7. Which company introduced the concept of Six Sigma?

8. This guy is one of the largest shareholder of HP. He challenged HP - Compaq merger in court but he lost the case. Whom we are talking about?
[A]Walter Hewlett
[B]Bill Hewlett
[C]Bill Packard
[D]Larry Ellision

9. What was Accenture previously known as?
[B]Arthur Consulting
[D]Andersen Consulting

10. India has domain names ending with .in, similarly Switzerland has domain name ending with .ch . What does ch stands for?
[A]Confoederatio Helvetica
[B]Czech Helvetica
[C]Confoederatio Helvetii
[D]Czech Helvetti

11. Who invented E-mail?
[A]Sabeer Bhatia
[B]Roy Tomlinson
[C]J. C. R. Licklider
[D]Ivan Sutherland

12. Which famous software personality once admitted on the David Letterman show in the US that he modified his school time-table program so that all girls would be in his class at any given time?
[A]Larry Page
[B]Bill Gates
[C]Larry Ellision
[D]Dennis Ritchie

13. Which company developed "Bluetooth" technology?
[B]ST Microelectronics

14. This vodka brand ‘A’ is produced in a Swedish city, named Ahus. It has been sold to a French company which is also an owner of another famous alcoholic brand ‘B’ – Name A and B.
[A]Absolut and Seagram
[B]Absolut and Smirnoff
[C]Seagram and Smirnoff
[D]Vat69 and Seagram

15. Which Internet term originally meant "harmless, creative fun"?


General Knowledge (GK) Quiz - 153

1. Who was the president of India during emergency?
[A]Zakir Hussain
[B]Dr Rajendra Prasad
[C]Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
[D]Giani Zail Singh

2. Who is awarded the Business Leader of the Year 2011 in India?
[A]A M Naik
[B]Indra Nooyi
[C]Arun Shourie
[D]Chanda Kochhar

3. Who received the Indian Entrepreneur of the Year award 2011?
[A]Rahul Bhatia
[B]Dilip Sanghavi
[C]H K Mittal
[D]GVK Reddy

4. Who received the Global Indian of the Year award 2011 at the ET Awards?
[A]Arun Sarin
[B]Vikram Pandit
[C]Ram Charan
[D]Nitin Nohria

5. Emerging Company of the Year at the ET Awards went to
[A]Cadila Healthcare
[B]Idea Cellular
[C]Shree Renuka Sugars
[D]Amtek Auto

6. Who received the Policy Change Agent award for the year 2011?
[A]Arvind Kejriwal
[B]Nandan Nilekani
[C]Aruna Roy
[D]Jean Dreze

7. Who received the Lifetime Achievement Award?
[A]Yaga Venugopal Reddy
[B]RC Bhargava
[C]Keshub Mahindra
[D]Joseph Henry

8. An American actor, comedian, writer, playwright, producer, musician and composer, he won the top award at the International Bluegrass Music Association Awards in Nashville. He and his band ‘The Steep Canyon Rangers’ were named entertainers of the year. Name the actor
[A]Johnny Depp
[B]Tom Hanks
[C]Steve Martin
[D]Robin Williams

9. Which of the following Indian healthcare providers has been named laureate of the Tech Awards 2011, a signature programme of the US-based Tech Museum for applying technology to benefit humanity and spark global change?
[B]Wipro GE Health Care
[C]Apollo Life
[D]E HealthPoint

10. A Lebanese actress and director, her second directorial effort "Et maintenant on va ou?" ("Where Do We Go Now?") won the Toronto film festival's People's Choice Award for best picture. Name her?
[A]Salma Hayek
[B]Nadine Labaki
[C]Kathy Najimy
[D]Catherine Keener

11. G-15 is consists of ______
[A]Developed countries
[B]Second World Nations
[C]Third World Nations
[D]Fourth World Nations

12. In which year did Hitler become the president of Germany?

13. When was the meeting of the Agriculture Ministers of the BRIC nations (Brazil, Russia, India and China) held for the first time?
[A]March 2009
[B]December 2009
[C]February 2010
[D]March 2010

14. _________ is not the official language of the United Nations?

15. Who was the 12th president of India?
[A]Abdul Kalam
[B]Pratibha Patil
[C]K. R. Narayanan
[D]Shankar Dayal Sharma


Information Technology Quiz - 16

1. Which of the following commands in Novell Netware Operating System opens a spool file that traps data for printing?

2. Which of the following commands in Novell Netware Operating System permits the alteration of the file attributes?

3. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. In cooperative multitasking, the user has to restart the computer when the application stops running and crashes.
II. In preemptive multitasking, the operating system regains control if an application stops running and crashes.
III. Multitasking operating systems enable a single user to work with two or more programs at once.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]All (I), (II) and (III) above

4. Information systems that process data generated out of business transactions like sales, purchases,paymentsetcarecalled payments, etc. are called
[A]Transaction Processing Systems
[B]Management Information Systems
[C]Decision Support Systems
[D]Executive Information Systems

5. Which of the following data models are used in describing the data at the logical and view levels?
I. Object based logical models (OBLM).
II. Record based logical models (RBLM).
III. Physical data base model.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]Both (I) and (II) above

6. Which of the following softwares runs on the background of the user’s computer screen, letting him know when his friends or coworkers are online?
[A]Buddy list
[B]Telecommunication software
[C]DBMS software
[D]Telecommunication control software

7. Which of the following type of file(s) can be copied using File Transfer Protocol?
I. Graphic.
II. Video.
III. Audio.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]All (I), (II) and (III) above

8. In World Wide Web, the documents are formatted in a script called
[B]VB Script
[C]Shell Script
[D]Java Script

9. What is the range of integer constant in C language?
[A]-2^16 to 2^16
[B]0 to 2^16 -1
[C]-2^15 to 2^15
[D]-2^15 to 2^15 -1

10. In a C program, Mr. Suresh initialized ‘a’ and ‘b’ as 50, 50 respectively.
a = a++ + ++b;
b = b++ + ++a;
What will be the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’ after executing the above statements?
[A]103, 153
[B]102, 154
[C]104, 154
[D]102, 153

11. Which of the following functions can be effectively used to so lve problems where the solution is found by repetitively applying the same solution to subsets of the problem?
I. Recursive.
II. Static.
III. Main.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Both (I) and (II) above
[D]Both (II) and (III) above

12. In C language , the structure definition is terminated with

13. In C language, which of the following functions is used to read an integer from a file?

14. Which of the following statements is/are false about Ring topology?
I. In ring network, the system depends entirely on the central host.
II. Ring network remains operational even if one computer in the network fails.
III. The main advantage of ring network is a substantial reduction in the cost of cabling.
[A]Only (III) above
[B]Both (I I) and (III) above
[C]Both (I) and (II) above
[D]Both (I) and (III) above

15. An ATM switch breaks voice, video and other data into fixed cells of
[A]51 bytes
[B]52 bytes
[C]53 bytes
[D]54 bytes


Thursday, April 26, 2012

General Knowledge Quiz - 152

1. Recently, the Empowered Group of Ministers, EGoM has decided to allocate 700 megahertz spectrum for offering which among the following telecom services?

2. Who is the new Chief Financial Officer of SBI?
[A]Diwakar Gupta
[B]Raj Nayak
[C]Nandu Nandkishore
[D]Anindya Banerjee

3. Who is the new head of Cuba’s ruling Communist Party?
[A]José Ramón Machado
[B]Fidel Castro
[C]Raul Castro
[D]José Ramón Fernández

4. Beryl Bainbridge was an English novelist who won the Whitbread Awards prize for best novel in 1977 and 1996; she was nominated five times for the Booker Prize and was described in 2007 as "a national treasure". In 2008, The Times newspaper named Bainbridge among their list of "The 50 greatest British writers since 1945". Which of her following novels is the winner of The Man Booker Best of Beryl Prize?
[A]The Birthday Boys
[B]The Girl in the Polka Dot Dress
[C]A Quiet Life
[D]Master Georgie

5. An American actor and playwright, he was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Drama for his play Clybourne Park? The Pulitzer Prize for drama is awarded "for a distinguished play by an American author, preferably original in its source and dealing with American life," according to the Pulitzer website. Name him
[A]David Adjmi
[B]Bruce Norris
[C]Richard Aellen
[D]Eric Bentley

6. Who is the winner of the Malaysian Open?
[A]David Duval
[B]Sergio Garcia
[C]Phil Mickelson
[D]Matteo Manassero

7. Which of the following British telecoms major plans to come out with an initial public offer (IPO) of shares in India next year?

8. Fortis Healthcare (India) has approved acquisition of 86 per cent stake in Super Religare Laboratories (SRL) to be based on third party valuation by private equity fund Avigo Capital Partners for __________
[A]Rs 500 crore
[B]Rs 930 crore
[C]Rs 280 crore
[D]Rs 850 crore

9. The world's largest retailer has acquired social media site Kosmix, a Silicon Valley firm founded by two IIT Chennai alumni, as the global retail giant aims to strengthen its position in social and mobile commerce offerings. Name the retailer

10. Which of the following countries will host the 2014 commonwealth games?

11. Which of the following Indian states is the largest producer of tobacco?
[A]Arunachal Pradesh
[B]Andhra Pradesh

12. Which of the following Indian cities is known as the Cathedral city of India?

13. Ajay Jayram is associated with which of the following games?

14. Who authored Brida?
[A]Paulo Coelho
[B]John Grisham
[C]Nikita Lalwani
[D]Nisha Minhas

15. Who is the president of Janata Party?
[A]Bhairon Singh Shekhawat
[B]J. Jaya Sankar
[C]Subramanian Swamy
[D]Nitin Gadkari


Software Testing Quiz - 2

1. The approach/document used to make sure all the requirements are covered when writing test cases
[A]Test Matrix
[C]Test bed
[D]Traceablity Matrix

2. Executing the same test case by giving the number of inputs on same build called as
[A]Regression Testing
[C]Ad hoc Testing
[D]Sanity Testing

3. To check whether we are developing the right product according to the customer requirements are not. It is a static process
[C]Quality Assurance
[D]Quality Control

4. To check whether we have developed the product according to the customer requirements r not. It is a Dynamic process.
[C]Quality Assurance
[D]Quality Control

5. It is a set of levels that defines a testing maturity hieraecy
[A]TIM (Testing Improving Model)
[B]TMM (Testing Maturity Model)
[C]TQM(Total Quality Management)
[D]None of the above

6. A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand
[A]Usability Testing
[B]Security Testing
[C]Unit testing
[D]Block Box Testing

7. The review and approved document (i.e. Test plan, System Requirement Specification’s) is called as
[A]Delivery Document
[B]Baseline Document
[D]None of the above

8. What are the Testing Levels?
[A]Unit Testing
[B]Integration Testing
[C]System Testing and Acceptance Testing.
[D]All the above

9. A useful tool to visualize, clarify, link, identify, and classify possible cause of a problem. This is also called as “fishbone diagram” what is this?
[A]Pareto Analysis
[B]Cause-and-Effect Diagram
[C]Gantt Chart
[D]None of the above

10. It measures the quality of processes used to create a quality product. It is a system of management activities, It is a preventive process, It applies for entire life cycle & Deals with Process.
[C]Quality Assurance
[D]Quality Control

11. Variance from product specifications is called?
[D]None of the above

12. Verification is
[A]Process based
[B]Product based
[C]Both Process and Product Based
[D]None of the above

13. White box testing is not called as___________
[A]Glass box testing
[B]Closed box testing
[C]OPen box testing
[D]Clear box testing

14. Name the events that will be analyzed, Count the named incidents, Rank the count by frequency using a bar chart & Validate reasonableness of the analysis is called as
[A]Pareto Analysis
[B]Cause and Effect Diagram
[C]SWOT Analysis
[D]Pie Charts

15. Retesting of a single program or component after a change has been made?
[A]Full Regression Testing
[B]Unit Regression
[C]Regional Regression


Finance Quiz - 8

1. Under which of the following factoring arrangements does the factor not make any prepayment to the client?
[A]Recourse factoring
[B]Invoice discounting
[C]Maturity factoring
[D]Non-recourse factoring

2. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Collection float indicates the amount of cheques issued by a company, awaiting payment by the bank.
II. If the collection float is more than the payment float, the company is said to have positive net float.
III. When the bank balance as per the books of the company is less than that in the bank’s books, the company can play the float.
[A]Only (II) above
[B]Only (III) above
[C]Both (II) and (III) above
[D]Both (I) and (III) above

3. Which of the following statements is/are true as per the Net Operating Income Approach?
I. Overall capitalization rate remains constant for all degrees of leverage.
II. Cost of equity remains constant for all degrees of leverage.
III. Cost of equity is a constant linear function of the debt-equity ratio.
IV. Cost of debt remains constant for all degrees of leverage.
[A]Only (III) above
[B]Only (IV) above
[C]Both (I) and (II) above
[D](I), (III) and (IV) above

4. Which of the following is not the source of long-term finance?
[A]Secured Premium Notes
[B]Fully Convertible Debentures
[C]Cumulative Preference Shares
[D]Commercial Paper

5. Which of the following will increase the duration of the operating cycle?
[A]Increase in the raw material storage period
[B]Decrease in the average collection period
[C]Increase in the average payment period
[D]Decrease in the conversion period

6. Which of the following appraisal criteria is useful for evaluating mutually exclusive projects providing similar service but having differing patterns of cost and unequal life spans?
[A]Net Present Value
[B]Internal Rate of Return
[C]Accounting Rate of Return
[D]Annual Capital Charge

7. Which of the following approaches to compute the cost of equity capital assumes that actual returns will be in line with the expected returns?
[A]Realized Yield Approach
[B]Bond Yield Plus Risk Premium Approach
[C]Earnings-Price Ratio Approach
[D]Dividend Capitalization Approach

8. Which of the following is/are not true?
I. If credit standards are made more stringent, sales are likely to decrease and less amount of money will be locked up in receivables.
II. If credit period is lengthened, sales are likely to increase but bad debt losses are likely to decrease.
III. If cash discount is increased, discount paid is likely to increase and amount of receivable is likely to reduce.
[A]Only (II) above
[B]Only (III) above
[C]Both (I) and (II) above
[D]Both (II) and (III) above

9. Which of the following is not an assumption made under the Modigliani and Miller approach for explaining the irrelevance of dividends policy for a firm?
[A]Existence of perfect capital markets
[B]Non-existence of differential tax rates for the dividend income and capital gains
[C]Non-influence of single investor on the share value
[D]Higher growth rate of dividends compared to cost of equity capital

10. Which of the following is spontaneous source of financing current assets?
[A]Note lending
[B]Trade credit
[C]Cash credit
[D]Letter of credit

11. Consider the following projects.
I. Project B which has a Net Benefit Cost Ratio less than one but more than zero.
II. Project C whose present value of inflows is less than the present value of outflows.
III. Project D which has a cost of capital less than the internal rate of return.
IV. Project E which has the highest annual capital charge compared to all other projects.
Which of the projects mentioned above could be accepted?
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Both (I) and (III) above
[C]Both (III) and (IV) above
[D](II), (III) and (IV) above

12. Which of the following statements is true about the terms of trade credit 4/10, net 30?
[A]A 10% cash discount is offered for payment before 30 days
[B]A 4% cash discount can be taken for payment before the 10th of the following month after invoicing
[C]A 10% cash discount can be taken if paid by the fourth day after invoicing
[D]No cash discount is offered from the eleventh day onwards after the date of purchase

13. Which of the following statements is true in case of a direct quote?
[A]Exchange margin is to be added to the bid rate and ask rate
[B]Exchange margin is to be added to the bid rate and deducted from the ask rate
[C]Exchange margin is to be deducted from the bid rate and the ask rate
[D]Exchange margin is to be deducted from the bid rate and added to the ask rate

14. Which of the following is not an appropriate hedging strategy for a likely devaluation of a currency?
[A]Reduce the level of cash
[B]Reduce the local borrowing
[C]Delay accounts payable
[D]Sell the weak currency forward

15. The following are the exchange rates quoted in NewYork:
CHF / $ 1.3591 / 93
$ / CAD 0.6570 / 72
The synthetic quotes of Swiss Franc per Canadian dollar are
[A]CHF / CAD 0.8929 / 33
[B]CHF / CAD 0.8930 / 32
[C]CHF / CAD 2.0683 / 86
[D]CHF / CAD 2.0680 / 89


Wednesday, April 25, 2012

GK Question Answers Multiple Choice Format (General Knowledge Quiz - 151)

1. Dave Whatmore was appointed as the principal coach by which of the following teams?
[D]South Africa

2. Indian Tennis pair of Mahesh Bhupati and Rohan Bopanna won the doubles title of Dubai Open on 3 March 2012. It was Bhupati's _______ career title.

3. Identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
1. He has recently joined the Hindustan Aeronautics Limited as its Chairman
2. He is one of the few outsiders to head HAL
3. He started his career with ONGC in 1976
4. He has also served as the head of Pawan Hans Limited
[A]RK Sharma
[B]RK Tyagi
[C]AM Naik
[D]Pratip Chaudhury

4. Which of the following Indian company has formed a joint venture with South African firm Exxaro
[A]Reliance Industries
[C]Tata Power
[D]Vodafone India

5. Who has been appointed the new Managing Director of Hyundai India?
[A]Bo Shin Seo
[B]Andrew Mark
[C]Anil Aggarwal
[D]Anand Mahindra

6. Admax, South Asia's largest digital media network was acquired by which Indian company
[A]Komli Media
[C]Tata Teleservices
[D]Google India

7. James Murdoch, who on 29 February 2012 stepped down as Executive Chairman of News International is son of
[A]Rupert Grint
[B]Steve Murdoch
[C]Mark Rupert
[D]Rupert Murdoch

8. Identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
1. He has recently been appointed as the Chairman of Mindtree Limited
2. He is also the co-founder of Mindtree limited
3. He has replaced Ashok Soota as the Chairman of Mindtree Limited
4. He has also served as the Vice Chaiman of Mindtree
[A]Subroto Bagchi
[B]Vivek Hooda
[C]Ashok Malik
[D]Pradeep Rungta

9. Which one of the following statements is wrong
[A]Varun Berry resigned from the Pepsi Co India on 29 February 2012
[B]He was the Chief Executive Officer of PepsiCo India Food
[C]He joined the company in 2006
[D]As the CEO of PepsiCo India Foods, he promoted brands like Lay's, Quaker, Kurkure and Lehar

10. Company Law Board on 1 March 2012, returned the petitions of
[A]Telenor and Unitech
[B]Reliance Telecom
[C]Etisalat DB

11. Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman
[A]Bank of Baroda
[B]Allahabad Bank
[C]State Bank of Maharashtra
[D]Syndicate Bank

12. Consider the following statements and using the code given below identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
1. He is an Australian national
2. He led the Australian cricket team twice to the world cup victory
3. He has 30 centuries and 82 fifties in ODI in his name
4. He on 21 February 2012 announced his retirement from the One day cricket
[A]Andrew Simonds
[B]Shane Watson
[C]Ricky Ponting
[D]Kevin Pieterson

13. Year 2012 is being launchedas the year of ______ in context of agriculture?
[A]Green Manure
[B]Organic Farming

14. Who among the following has won the Best actor Award in the 59th National Film Awards 2011?
[A]Amir Khan
[B]Nasiruddin Shah
[C]Girish Kulkarni
[D]Salman Khan

15. The four leading countries in the recently held first women's World Cup Kabaddi championship were as follows:
[A]India, Iran, Japan, Russia
[B]India, Iran, Japan, Thailand
[C]India, Australia, Japan, Iran
[D]India, Australia, Iran, Japan


Software Testing True False Questions (Software Testing Quiz - 1)

1. Control Charts is a statistical technique to assess, monitor, and maintain the stability of a process.

2. Staff development plan describes how the skills and experience of the project team members will be developed.

3. Cost of quality = Prevention Cost + Appraisal cost + Failure cost

4. Requirement and Analysis, Design, Development or Coding, Testing and Maintenance is called as Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC )

5. Configuration Management Plan describes the Configuration Management procedures and structures to be used.

6. Product Risk affects The quality or performance of the software.

7. Business Risk affects The Organization developing or Procuring the software.

8. Stratification is a Technique used to analyze/divide a universe of data into homogeneous groups(strata).

9. Automation Testing should be done before starting Manual testing.

10. Earlier a defect is found the cheaper it is to fix it.

11. Software Testing is a process of evaluating a system by manual or automatic means and verify that it satisfies specified requirements or identity differences between expected and actual results.

12. Path Tested = Number of Path Tested / Total Number of Paths

13. Maintenance Plan predicts the maintenance requirements of the system, maintenance costs and effort required

14. Validation plan describes the approach ,resources and schedule used for system validation

15. Types of quality tools are Problem Identification Tools and Problem Analysis Tools.


Financial Management MCQ/Finance MCQ (Finance Quiz - 7)

1. A 90-day T-bill futures expires in 100 days. Spot price of the 190-day T-bill is $98. A 100-day risk-free interest rate is 3.5% p.a. The yield on this futures contract is

2. Which of the following is true about a callable swap?
[A]The fixed rate receiver has the right to terminate the swap at any time before its maturity
[B]The fixed rate payer has the right to extend the swap beyond maturity
[C]The fixed rate payer has the right to terminate the swap at any time before its maturity
[D]Both fixed rate payer and receiver have the right to terminate the swap at any time before its maturity

3. In a single period binomial option-pricing model, the underlying stock is currently selling for Rs.80 and will rise or fall by 15% over the next period. A call option with an exercise price of Rs.95 would have a premium of

4. Goetzmann AG, an integrated steel producer in Germany, is worst hit by recession wave. In 2001, the entire company was broken into eight new entities and Goetzmann ceased to exist. This technique of restructuring is called
[A]Spin off
[B]Split off
[C]Split up

5. When a firm is a target of hostile tender offer, the target firm invites other friendly bidder. This strategy of takeover defense is called
[A]Poison pills
[B]Crown jewels
[C]White knights
[D]Golden parachute

6. Which of the following money market instruments has a maturity period varying from 2 to 15 days?
[A]Call money
[B]Commercial Paper
[C]Notice money
[D]Treasury Bill

7. Which of the following will decrease with an increase in the interest rate?
[A]Future Value Interest Factor
[B]Future Value Interest Factor For Annuity
[C]Capital Recovery Factor
[D]Present Value Interest Factor for a perpetual annuity

8. Which of the following is true?
[A]A change in YTM affects bonds with a lower YTM more than it does bonds with a higher YTM
[B]Given the maturity, for equal sized increases or decreases in the YTM, price movements are not symmetrical
[C]When the required rate of return is greater than the coupon rate, the value of the bond is more than its par value
[D]Bond’s price is directly proportional to its YTM

9. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Beta of a security increases with an increase in the variance of market returns.
II. Beta of a security increases with a decrease in standard deviation of the security’s return.
III. Beta of a security increases with an increase in the value of the correlation coefficient between the security’s return and market return.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]Both (I) and (II) above

10. Which of the following is not true about Commercial Papers (CPs)?
[A]CPs are negotiable by endorsement and delivery
[B]The minimum maturity period of CPs is 15 days
[C]CPs are unsecured in nature
[D]CPs cannot be issued at a discount to face value

11. Which of the following assumptions associated with Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is/are not true?
I. The greater the perceived risk of a portfolio, the higher is the return expected by a risk-averse investor.
II. All individuals agree on the nature of return and risk associated with each investment.
III. The choice of buying assets is affected by taxes.
[A]Only (I) above
[B]Only (II) above
[C]Only (III) above
[D]Both (I) and (II) above

12. Which of the following is an example of a diversifiable risk?
[A]Ability of a company to obtain adequate supply of raw materials
[B]Changes in the tax structure
[C]Reduction in the purchasing power of money
[D]Recession in the economy

13. Who among the following categories of people try to obtain risk free profits by simultaneously buying and selling similar instruments in different markets?

14. The sinking fund factor is the inverse of
[A]Capital Recovery Factor
[B]Future Value Interest Factor
[C]Future Value Interest Factor for Annuity
[D]Present Value Interest Factor for Annuity

15. Consider the following data
Annual credit purchase = Rs.72,72,000
Opening balance of accounts payable = Rs.17,66,400
Closing balance of accounts payable = Rs.29,20,000
The average payment period assuming 360 days in a year is
[A]36 days
[B]66 days
[C]96 days
[D]116 days


Tuesday, April 24, 2012

2012 Current Affairs and 2012 GK for Exams (General Knowledge Quiz - 150)

1. The union government decided to boost public spending in the health sector to what per cent of GDP from the current 1.4 per cent over five years (12th Five Year Plan period begining 2012)?

2. As per the data released by the Central Statistical organisation (CSO) on 29 February 2012, India's economic growth rate dipped to what percent in the third quarter (october-december ) of 2011-12 due to poor performance of the manufacturing, mining and farm sectors?

3. As per the data released by the Controller General of Accounts on 29 February 2012, fiscal deficit was 105 per cent of the total annual target in the April-January period of 2011-12. What did the deficit stand at?
[A]Rs 4 lakh crore
[B]Rs 3.33 lakh crore
[C]Rs 5.21 lakh crore
[D]Rs 4.34 lakh crore

4. Scientists recently found the treatment for Glaucoma in rats. Glaucoma is an __ disease.

5. Scientists identified two genes, which are linked to Parkinson's. The genes are called__.

6. Erosion and diversion of Rushikulya river mouth in Odisha's Ganjam district seem to be posing a serious threat to the annual mass nesting of the endangered Olive Ridley sea turtles. Consider the following statements:
i) The olive ridley sea turtle is also known as the Pacific ridley.
ii) It is a species of sea turtle.
Choose the right option:
[A]Both i and ii are correct.
[B]Only i is correct.
[C]Only ii is correct.
[D]Neither i nor ii is correct.

7. Which one of the following state governments imposed restrictions on the visit of foreign tourists to the areas inhabited by Tribals?
[C]Madhya Pradesh
[D]Uttar Pradesh

8. According to data released by the government on 19 March 2012, retail inflation stood at what per cent in February 2012 as a result of higher prices of protein based items, edible oil products and manufactured goods?

9. The Union Finance Minister (FM) Pranab Mukherjee tabled the Union Budget in the Parliament of India on 16 March 2012 for the fiscal year 2012-13. The total expenditure for 2012-13 is estimated what amount?
[A]Rs 1400025 crore
[B]Rs 1490925 crore
[C]Rs 1451033 crore
[D]Rs 1444264 crore

10. In the Economic Survey tabled by the Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 15 March 2012, Indian economy was estimated to grow by what per cent in 2011-12 mainly due to weakening industrial growth?

11. The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true?
1. The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore.
2. The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km
3. Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation works
4. The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley
5. Union railway Minister proposed to raise the allocation under passenger amenities from Rs 762 crore in 2011-12 to Rs 1102 crore in 2012-13
[A]3 and 5
[B]Only 4
[C]Only 2
[D]3 and 4

12. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukharjee presented the annual budget for the fiscal year 2012-13 in the parliament on 16 March 2012. The Union Minister of Finance came up with an increased budgetary allocation for various sectors including agriculture, rural development, defence etc. Which of the statements are not true with respect to the budgetary allocations?
1. Budgetary allocation for agriculture and allied activities 2012-13 increased by 16%. 9217 crore rupees allocated for Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana
2. 20,000 crore rupees allocated for Rural Infrastructure Development Fund
3. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan-Right to Education- 25555 crore rupees
4. 193407 crore rupees aallocated for Defence services including 79579crore rupees for capital expenditure
5. 20822 crore rupees National Rural Health Mission
[A]1 and 5
[B]Only 1
[C]2 and 5
[D]Only 4

13. Identify the personality with whom these statements are associated
1. He has recently announced his retirement from International Test Cricket
2. He is the second highest run getter in international test cricket
3. He made his international debut on 20 June 1996 while playing at the Lord's against England
4. He has the highest test catches to his credit
[A]Sourav Ganguly
[B]Adam Gilchrist
[C]VVS Laxman
[D]Rahul Dravid

14. Which one of the following statements is wrong
[A]Anjum Chopra will lead the Indian team in the limited-over series against Australia
[B]Anjum Chopra is a leading hockey player
[C]Indian women Kabaddi team won first women World Cup Kabaddi championship title
[D]Akhil Kumar is a boxer

15. Who among the following tennis players won Dubai Open Singles Title?
[A]Rafael Nadal
[B]Roger Federer
[C]Novak Djokovic
[D]Andy Murray


PMP Study Material and Online Resources (Project Management Quiz - 71)

1. Early start dates are useful in _______:
[A]Determining float
[B]Assigning resources
[C]Forecasting costs
[D]Prioritizing work

2. The schedule development technique that provides early and late Start dates and early and late Finish dates for each activity is:
[C]Monte Carlo simulation

3. The primary outcome of performing a forward pass on a network diagram in a critical path method is the determination of the:
[A]Earliest time each activity in the network can start and finish
[B]Amount of resources required completing the project
[C]Projects total float
[D]All the above

4. For calculating early finish, we need to proceed in a network from_________ and we need to add the ________of the activity to it's early start:
[A]Right to left, float
[B]Right to left, duration
[C]Left to right, duration
[D]Left to right , float

5. Based on the information given below, the late start (LS) for activity B is:
Activity No. Time Estimate (days) Immediate Predecessor

6. Based on the information given below, the late finish (LF) for an activity D is:
Activity No. Time Estimate (days) Immediate Predecessor

7. In what way does free float (FF) differ from total float (TF)?
[A]Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of free float
[B]There is no difference - the two terms are functionally equivalent
[C]Free float is the amount of time available exclusively to an activity and does not affect the early start of any immediately following activities
[D]Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time," whereas total float is commonly referred to as "float time"

8. Total float is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying the:
[A]Project finish date
[B]Early start of the succeeding activities
[C]Other in-progress activities
[D]Constraints on other activities

9. Float that is not shared by any other activity in the network is known as a:
[A]Individual float
[B]Free float
[C]Total float
[D]Expected float

10. The time available for a series of tasks on a path without delaying the project end date is called:
[A]Free float
[B]Total float
[C]Activity float
[D]Margin float

11. The project network analysis covers:
[A]Early start, early finish, late start and late finish only
[B]Early start, early finish, late start and late finish, critical path analysis, float calculations etc.
[C]Project manager’s role to control project execution
[D]Mobilization of resources required for executing a project

12. Main advantage of using Gantt charts is:
[A]For project planning
[B]For reporting to project team members/stakeholders
[C]For quick review by management
[D]For effective risk analysis

13. Gantt charts are generally used to review the:
[A]Logical relationships
[B]Critical paths
[C]Progress or status as on date
[D]Resource trade-off

14. As a control tool, the bar chart (Gantt) method is most beneficial for:
[A]Management review at higher level
[B]Good for project team members
[C]Showing the relationship of tasks at a summary level
[D]A and C

15. Which is not a strength of Gantt charts?
[A]It is simple to learn
[B]It is simple to use
[C]It enables team members to readily compare actual vs. planned performance
[D]It shows the interrelationships of tasks



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